kaniello
06-15-2005, 04:37 AM
Hi everybody!
According to theory the FT of err(x) is (1./i*k)/(exp(-i*k^2.)). If I input this function and I back-transform I get nothing. Could it be a problem of 1./i*k near zero?
Can anybody help me please?
According to theory the FT of err(x) is (1./i*k)/(exp(-i*k^2.)). If I input this function and I back-transform I get nothing. Could it be a problem of 1./i*k near zero?
Can anybody help me please?