niaouli
10-25-2006, 09:30 AM
Hi,
I'm asking my question here after an inefficient search.
Could someone explain precisely why the lomb normalized periodogram based on the fasper routine gives 4 times more abcisse (wk1) points than the fast fourier transform (considering only useful points of FFT, i.e. n/2), meaning a best spectral resolution?
I'm asking my question here after an inefficient search.
Could someone explain precisely why the lomb normalized periodogram based on the fasper routine gives 4 times more abcisse (wk1) points than the fast fourier transform (considering only useful points of FFT, i.e. n/2), meaning a best spectral resolution?